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Why can a magnetic monopole not exist, assuming Maxwell's Equations are currently correct and complete? It would violate Faraday's Law. It would not produce any magnetic flux. It would require that a magnetic field exist in the presence of an electric field. If enclosed by a surface, it would produce a net flux through the surface.

Why can a magnetic monopole not exist, assuming Maxwell's Equations are currently correct and complete? It would violate Faraday's Law. It would not produce any magnetic flux. It would require that a magnetic field exist in the presence of an electric field. If enclosed by a surface, it would produce a net flux through the surface.

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Why can a magnetic monopole not exist, assuming Maxwell's Equations are currently correct and complete? It would violate Faraday's Law. It would not produce any magnetic flux. It would require that a magnetic field exist in the presence of an electric field. If enclosed by a surface, it would produce a net flux through the surface.

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